Version: 011

6/11/2001

Bank: (General - Aviation Mechanic) ( Airframe ) ( Power Plant )

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items.

Subject matter codes appear above each item. Questions 1 - 260

261. E04 AMG

(Refer to figure 43.) Identify the clevis bolt illustrated.

A. 2.

B. 1.

C. 3.

262. E04 AMG

A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to

A. change washers and try again.

B. tighten below the torque range.

C. exceed the recommended torque range by no more than 10 percent.

263. E04 AMG

A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an

A. NAS close tolerance bolt.

B. NAS standard aircraft bolt.

C. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt.

264. E04 AMG

How is a clevis bolt used with a fork end cable terminal secured?

A. With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork.

B. With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached.

C. With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin.

265. E04 AMG

Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?

A. Where external tension loads are applied.

B. For tension and shear load conditions.

C. Only for shear load applications.

266. E04 AMG

A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an

A. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt.

B. NAS close tolerance bolt.

C. NAS standard aircraft bolt.

267. E04 AMG

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is

A. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat treated aluminum alloy.

B. heat treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

C. strain hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

268. E04 AMG

The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?

A. Aluminum alloy containing zinc.

B. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper.

C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

269. E04 AMG

Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a

A. class 3 fit for the threads.

B. class 2 fit for the threads.

C. class 1 fit for the threads.

270. E04 AMG

In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates

A. the percent of alloying metal added.

B. the major alloying element.

C. the number of major alloying elements used in the metal.

271. E04 AMG

How is the locking feature of the fiber type locknut obtained?

A. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert.

B. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section.

C. By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those in the load carrying section.

272. E05 AMG

(Refer to figure 44.) Identify the weld caused by an excessive amount of acetylene.

A. 1.

B. 3.

C. 4.

273. E05 AMG

(Refer to figure 44.) Select the illustration which depicts a cold weld.

A. 4.

B. 3.

C. 2.

274. E05 AMG

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding?

A. To remove the surface scale formed during welding.

B. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal.

C. To increase the hardness of the weld.

275. E05 AMG

Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken?

A. Remove all the old weld, and reweld the joint.

B. Reweld the defective portions.

C. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect, and reweld all gaps/holes.

276. E05 AMG

Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?

A. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions.

B. Cracking adjacent to the weld.

C. Discoloration of the base metal.

277. E05 AMG

Select a characteristic of a good gas weld.

A. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod.

B. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal.

C. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal.

278. E05 AMG

One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at a distance from the weld of more than

A. 1/4 inch.

B. 1/2 inch.

C. 1 inch.

279. E05 AMG

(Refer to figure 45.) What type weld is shown at A?

A. Butt.

B. Lap.

C. Fillet.

280. E05 AMG

(Refer to figure 45.) What type weld is shown at B?

A. Fillet.

B. Butt.

C. Double butt.

281. E05 AMG

(Refer to figure 45.) What type weld is shown at G?

A. Lap.

B. Joint.

C. Butt.

282. E05 AMG

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentage(s) of the base metal thickness?

A. 25 to 50 percent.

B. 100 percent.

C. 60 to 80 percent.

283. E06 AMG

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disk?

A. Dial indicator.

B. Protractor.

C. Shaft gauge.

284. E06 AMG

(Refer to figure 46.) The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer is

A. 0.2851.

B. 0.2911.

C. 0.2901.

285. E06 AMG

Identify the correct statement.

A. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measuring device.

B. An outside micrometer is limited to measuring diameters.

C. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be an approved type.

286. E06 AMG

(Refer to figure 47.) What is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper scale?

A. 1.436 inches.

B. 1.700 inches.

C. 1.411 inches.

287. E06 AMG

Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness?

A. Thickness gauge.

B. Depth gauge.

C. Dial indicator.

288. E06 AMG

Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer?

A. .001.

B. .00001.

C. .0001.

289. E06 AMG

Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work?

A. Micrometer caliper.

B. Dial indicator.

C. Combination set.

290. E06 AMG

(Refer to figure 48.) What does the micrometer read?

A. .2974.

B. .3108.

C. .3004.

291. E06 AMG

If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4 inch in diameter, the mechanic should use a

A. small hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge.

B. 0 to 1 inch inside micrometer and read the measurement directly from the micrometer.

C. telescoping gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of the telescoping gauge.

292. E06 AMG

(Refer to figure 49.) The measurement reading on the micrometer is

A. .2758.

B. .2792.

C. .2702.

293. E06 AMG

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension?

A. Machinist scale.

B. Dial indicator.

C. Surface gauge.

294. E06 AMG

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy?

A. Gauge block.

B. Dial indicator.

C. Machinist scale.

295. E06 AMG

What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for out of round wear?

A. Dial gauge.

B. Depth gauge.

C. Micrometer caliper.

296. E06 AMG

The side clearances of piston rings are measured with a

A. micrometer caliper gauge.

B. dial gauge.

C. thickness gauge.

297. E06 AMG

How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished?

A. Telescopic gauge and micrometer.

B. Thickness gauge and push fit arbor.

C. Depth gauge and micrometer.

298. E06 AMG

The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push fit arbors in both ends, supported by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a

A. height gauge.

B. thickness gauge.

C. dial gauge.

299. E06 AMG

The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a

A. thickness gauge.

B. depth gauge.

C. micrometer caliper.

300. E06 AMG

What may be used to check the stem on a poppet-type valve for stretch?

A. Micrometer.

B. Dial indicator.

C. Telescoping gauge.

301. E06 AMG

Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out of round wear?

A. Telescopic gauge.

B. Dial indicator.

C. Micrometer caliper.

302. F01 AMG

During starting of a turbine powerplant using a compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select the proper procedure.

A. Advance power lever to increase RPM.

B. Shut the engine down.

C. Re-engage the starter.

303. F01 AMG

A hung start in a jet engine is often caused by

A. malfunctions in the ignition system.

B. the starter cutting off too soon.

C. an excessively rich fuel/air mixture.

304. F01 AMG

Which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some aircraft?

A. Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent accidental operation of the nosewheel steering mechanism.

B. Tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards.

C. If the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the torque-link lock should be set to full swivel.

305. F01 AMG

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding tiedown of small aircraft?

1. Manila (hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch when it gets wet.

2. Nylon or dacron rope is preferred to manila rope.

3. The aircraft should be headed downwind in order to eliminate or minimize wing lift.

4. Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked.

A. 1 and 2.

B. 2.

C. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

306. F01 AMG

When approaching the front of an idling jet engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately

A. 15 feet.

B. 10 feet.

C. 25 feet.

307. F01 AMG

Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire?

A. A fine, water mist.

B. Carbon dioxide.

C. Dry chemical.

308. F01 AMG

(Refer to figure 50.) Identify the signal to engage rotor on a rotorcraft.

A. 3.

B. 2.

C. 1.

309. F01 AMG

If a radial engine has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through at least two revolutions to

A. check for hydraulic lock.

B. prime the engine.

C. check for leaks.

310. F01 AMG

The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever in the

A. FULL RICH position.

B. IDLE CUTOFF position.

C. AUTO RICH position.

311. F01 AMG

The most important condition to be monitored during start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the

A. RPM.

B. oil pressure.

C. EGT, TIT, or ITT.

312. F01 AMG

How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel?

A. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off, and the throttle fully open, until the fuel charge has been cleared.

B. Turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the starting attempt until the excess fuel has cleared.

C. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch on, and the throttle fully open, until the excess fuel has cleared or until the engine starts.

313. F01 AMG

(Refer to figure 51.) Which marshalling signal should be given if a taxiing aircraft is in danger of striking an object?

A. 2.

B. 1 or 3.

C. 3.

314. F01 AMG

Generally, when an induction fire occurs during starting of a reciprocating engine, the first course of action should be to

A. continue cranking and start the engine if possible.

B. close the throttle.

C. discharge carbon dioxide from a fire extinguisher into the air intake of the engine.

315. F01 AMG

When starting and ground operating an aircraft's engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily

A. to aid in achieving and maintaining the proper air and fuel mixture flow in the engine.

B. for engine cooling purposes.

C. to help cancel out engine torque effect.

316. F01 AMG

When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet engine, the hazard area extends aft of the engine approximately

A. 200 feet.

B. 100 feet.

C. 50 feet.

317. F01 AMG

If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine powerplant, what is the likely cause?

A. The ambient air temperature was too high (over 100 degrees F).

B. The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich.

C. The starting unit overheated.

318. F01 AMG

What effect will aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel have on a turbine engine?

A. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the compressor blades.

B. No appreciable effect.

C. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the turbine blades.

319. F01 AMG

(1) Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation gasoline and therefore holds contaminants better.

(2) Viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel.

Regarding the above statements,

A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

B. only No. 1 is true.

C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

320. F01 AMG

When towing a large aircraft

A. persons should be stationed at the nose, each wingtip, and the empennage at all times.

B. a person should be in the cockpit to watch for obstructions.

C. a person should be in the cockpit to operate the brakes.

321. F01 AMG

Weathervaning tendency is greatest when taxiing

A. either type of airplane in a quartering tailwind.

B. a tailwheel-type airplane in a direct crosswind.

C. a nosewheel-type airplane in a quartering headwind.

322. F01 AMG

When taxiing an airplane with a quartering tailwind, the elevators and

A. upwind aileron should be held in the up position.

B. both ailerons should be kept in the neutral position.

C. upwind aileron should be held in the down position.

323. F01 AMG

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing red light from the control tower means

A. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately.

B. return to starting point.

C. stop and wait for a green light.

324. F01 AMG

A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the pilot's field of vision whenever the engine is running in order to avoid

A. the main rotor.

B. blowing dust or debris caused by rotor downwash.

C. the tail rotor.

325. F01 AMG

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing white light from the control tower means

A. OK to proceed but use extreme caution.

B. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately.

C. return to starting point.

326. F01 AMG

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means

A. OK to proceed but use extreme caution.

B. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately.

C. return to starting point.

327. F01 AMG

When stopping a nosewheel-type airplane after taxiing, the nosewheel should be left

A. turned at a small angle.

B. pointed straight ahead.

C. unlocked.

328. F01 AMG

When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing, it is important to

A. notify the control tower.

B. closely monitor the instruments.

C. test the brakes.

329. F02 AMG

The color of 100LL fuel is

A. blue.

B. colorless or straw.

C. red.

330. F02 AMG

How are aviation fuels, which possess greater antiknock qualities than 100 octane, classified?

A. By reference to normal heptane.

B. By performance numbers.

C. According to the milliliters of lead.

331. F02 AMG

Why is ethylene dibromide added to aviation gasoline?

A. To increase the antiknock rating of the fuel.

B. To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder combustion chambers.

C. To remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark plugs.

332. F02 AMG

Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which statement is true in reference to the advantages of each?

A. Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit weight than gasoline.

B. Gasoline has a higher heat energy per unit volume than kerosene.

C. Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume than gasoline.

333. F02 AMG

What must accompany fuel vaporization?

A. A reduction in volume.

B. An absorption of heat.

C. A decrease in vapor pressure.

334. F02 AMG

Characteristics of detonation are

A. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head temperature normal, and a decrease in engine power.

B. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine power.

C. cylinder pressure remains the same, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine power.

335. F02 AMG

A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause

A. detonation.

B. hard starting.

C. vapor lock.

336. F02 AMG

Jet fuel number identifiers are

A. performance numbers and are relative to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine.

B. performance numbers to designate the volatility of the fuel.

C. type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine.

337. F02 AMG

The main differences between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are

A. lead content and color.

B. volatility and lead content.

C. volatility, lead content, and color.

338. F02 AMG

Characteristics of aviation gasoline are

A. high heat value, low volatility.

B. low heat value, low volatility.

C. high heat value, high volatility.

339. F02 AMG

Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to

A. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline.

B. retard the formation of corrosives.

C. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine.

340. F02 AMG

A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause

A. vapor lock.

B. hard starting.

C. detonation.

341. G01 AMG

A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise nonapproved cleaning compounds should not be used when washing aircraft is because their use can result in

A. a general inability to remove compound residues.

B. hydrogen embrittlement in nonmetallic materials.

C. hydrogen embrittlement in metal structures.

342. G01 AMG

How may magnesium engine parts be cleaned?

A. Wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize, and scrape or grit blast.

B. Soak in a 20 percent caustic soda solution.

C. Spray with MEK (methyl ethyl ketone).

343. G01 AMG

When an anodized surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by

A. use of a suitable mild cleaner.

B. applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer.

C. chemical surface treatment.

344. G01 AMG

Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting.

A. Dry-cleaning solvent.

B. Aromatic naptha.

C. Aliphatic naphtha.

345. G01 AMG

Nickel cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of

A. sodium bicarbonate.

B. potassium hydroxide.

C. boric acid.

346. G01 AMG

Which of the following are acceptable to use when utilizing chemical cleaning agents to clean aircraft?

1. Synthetic fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent.

2. Cotton fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent.

3. Atomizing spray equipment.

A. 2.

B. 2 and 3

C. 1.

347. G01 AMG

Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber.

A. Aliphatic naphtha.

B. Aromatic naphtha.

C. Methyl ethyl ketone.

348. G01 AMG

Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of

A. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide.

B. forming passive oxides.

C. entrapping corrosive materials.

349. G01 AMG

Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of producing

A. corrosion.

B. improved corrosion resistance.

C. passive oxidation.

350. G02 AMG

Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur

A. when two surfaces fit loosely together and can move relative to one another.

B. only when two dissimilar metals are in contact.

C. when two surfaces fit tightly together but can move relative to one another.

351. G02 AMG

The rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals is the result of

A. a tendency for them to return to their natural state.

B. blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals, or between dissimilar metals.

C. electron flow in or between metals from cathodic to anodic areas.

352. G02 AMG

Which of the following are the desired effects of using Alodine on aluminum alloy?

1. A slightly rough surface.

2. Relieved surface stresses.

3. A smooth painting surface.

4. Increased corrosion resistance.

A. 3 and 4.

B. 1 and 4.

C. 1, 2, and 4.

353. G02 AMG

Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to occur?

A. The presence of an electrolyte.

B. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area.

C. The presence of a passive oxide film.

354. G02 AMG

The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called

A. brinelling.

B. exfoliation.

C. granulation.

355. G02 AMG

A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called

A. dichromating.

B. anodizing.

C. alodizing.

356. G02 AMG

Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces?

1. Steel wool.

2. Brass wire brush.

3. Aluminum wool.

4. Stainless steel wire brush.

5. Fiber bristle brush.

A. 1, 3, & 5.

B. 3 & 5.

C. 2 & 4.

357. G02 AMG

Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts

A. commonly appears as threadlike filaments of corrosion products under a dense film of paint.

B. cannot always be detected by surface indications.

C. may be detected by surface pitting, and white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal.

358. G02 AMG

What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel surfaces?

A. Fine grit aluminum oxide.

B. Steel wire brushes.

C. Medium grit carborundum paper.

359. G02 AMG

A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is

A. dissimilar metal contact.

B. improper heat treatment.

C. improper application of primer.

360. G02 AMG

Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a

A. stiff, nonmetallic brush.

B. carborundum abrasive.

C. silicon carbide brush.

361. G02 AMG

Why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after the corrosion preventive mixture has been put into the cylinders on engines prepared for storage?

A. Fuel may be drawn into one or more cylinders and dilute or wash off the corrosion preventive mixture.

B. The seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be broken.

C. Engine damage can occur from hydraulic lock.

362. G02 AMG

Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water before it is cleaned with soap and water?

A. To prevent crazing.

B. To prevent discoloration.

C. To prevent scratching.

363. G02 AMG

What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease come in contact with a tire?

A. Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a washdown and rinse with soap and water.

B. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth, and then rinse with clean water.

C. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic naphtha and then wipe dry with a clean cloth.

364. G02 AMG

Galvanic corrosion at the interface of a dissimilar metal part may best be prevented by

A. conducting frequent inspections and keeping all exposed areas of the part clean.

B. placing a nonporous dielectric material between the surfaces.

C. sealing exposed seam edges with a recommended sealing compound.

365. G02 AMG

Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of

A. excessive anodization.

B. excessive etching.

C. contact between two unlike metals.

366. G02 AMG

Which of these materials is the most anodic?

A. 7075-T6 aluminum alloy.

B. Cadmium.

C. Magnesium.

367. G02 AMG

The interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing would be best protected against corrosion by which of the following?

A. Charging the tubing with dry nitrogen prior to sealing.

B. Evacuating moisture from the tubing before sealing.

C. A coating of linseed oil.

368. G02 AMG

Which of these materials is the most cathodic?

A. Stainless steel.

B. Zinc.

C. 2024 aluminum alloy.

369. G02 AMG

Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when

A. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than surface area of the anodic metal.

B. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal.

C. the surface areas of the anodic and cathodic metals are approximately the same.

370. G02 AMG

One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress corrosion cracking is by

A. producing nonuniform deformation while cold working during the manufacturing process.

B. creating compressive stresses on the metal surface.

C. relieving compressive stresses on the metal surface.

371. G02 AMG

(1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes.

(2) In the Galvanic or Electro-Chemical Series for metals, the most anodic metals are those that will give up electrons most easily.

Regarding the above statements,

A. only No. 2 is true.

B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

C. only No. 1 is true.

372. G02 AMG

Spilled mercury on aluminum

A. causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very difficult to control.

B. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact.

C. increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement.

373. H01 AMG

What power of 10 is equal to 1,000,000?

A. 10 to the sixth power.

B. 10 to the fifth power.

C. 10 to the fourth power.

374. H01 AMG

Find the square root of 1,746.

A. 41.7752.

B. 40.7742.

C. 41.7852.

375. H01 AMG

(Refer to figure 52.) Solve the equation.

A. 4.472.

B. 5.

C. 115.

376. H01 AMG

Find the square root of 3,722.1835.

A. 61.00971.

B. 61.0097.

C. 61.00.

377. H01 AMG

8,019.0514 x 1/81 is equal to the square root of

A. 9,801.

B. 9,081.

C. 9,108.

378. H01 AMG

Find the cube of 64.

A. 262,144.

B. 4.

C. 192.

379. H01 AMG

Find the value of 10 raised to the negative sixth power.

A. 0.000010.

B. 0.000001.

C. 0.0001.

380. H01 AMG

What is the square root of 4 raised to the fifth power?

A. 32.

B. 20.

C. 64.

381. H01 AMG

The number 3.47 x 10 to the negative fourth power is equal to

A. .00347.

B. .000347.

C. 34,700.0.

382. H01 AMG

Which alternative answer is equal to 16,300?

A. 1.63 x 10 to the negative third power.

B. 1.63 x 10 to the fourth power.

C. 163 x 10 to the negative second power.

383. H01 AMG

Find the square root of 124.9924.

A. 1,118 x 10 to the negative second power.

B. .1118 x 10 to the negative second power.

C. 111.8 x 10 to the third power.

384. H01 AMG

What is the square root of 16 raised to the fourth power?

A. 256.

B. 1,024.

C. 4,096.

385. H01 AMG

(Refer to figure 53.) Solve the equation.

A. .0297.

B. .0419.

C. .1680.

386. H01 AMG

The result of 7 raised to the third power plus the square root of 39 is equal to

A. 343.24.

B. .34924.

C. 349.24.

387. H01 AMG

Find the square root of 1,824.

A. .42708 x 10 to the second power.

B. 42.708 x 10 to the negative second power.

C. .42708.

388. H02 AMG

The total piston displacement of a specific engine is

A. the total volume of all the cylinders.

B. dependent on the compression ratio.

C. the volume displaced by all the pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft.

389. H02 AMG

(Refer to figure 54.) Compute the area of the trapezoid.

A. 60 square feet.

B. 76.5 square feet.

C. 52.5 square feet.

390. H02 AMG

What size sheet of metal is required to fabricate a cylinder 20 inches long and 8 inches in diameter?

(Note: C = pi x D)

A. 20" x 24-9/64".

B. 20" x 25-9/64".

C. 20" x 25-5/32".

391. H02 AMG

(Refer to figure 55.) Find the area of the triangle shown.

A. 6 square inches.

B. 12 square inches.

C. 15 square inches.

392. H02 AMG

What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic cylinder if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches and the fluid pressure is 850 PSI?

A. 1,020 pounds.

B. 850 pounds.

C. 960 pounds.

393. H02 AMG

A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 60 inches in length, 30 inches in width, and 12 inches in depth. How many cubic feet are within the tank?

A. 15.0.

B. 21.0.

C. 12.5.

394. H02 AMG

Select the container size that will be equal in volume to 60 gallons of fuel.

(7.5 gal = 1 cu ft)

A. 7.5 cubic feet.

B. 8.5 cubic feet.

C. 8.0 cubic feet.

395. H02 AMG

(Refer to figure 56.) Compute the area of the trapezoid.

A. 10 square feet.

B. 48 square feet.

C. 24 square feet.

396. H02 AMG

(Refer to figure 57.) Determine the area of the triangle formed by points A, B, and C.

A to B = 7.5 inches

A to D = 16.8 inches

A. 126 square inches.

B. 42 square inches.

C. 63 square inches.

397. H02 AMG

What is the piston displacement of a master cylinder with a 1.5-inch diameter bore and a piston stroke of 4 inches?

A. 6.1541 cubic inches.

B. 9.4247 cubic inches.

C. 7.0686 cubic inches.

398. H02 AMG

How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a rectangular shaped tank which measures 2 feet in width, 3 feet in length, and 1 foot 8 inches in depth?

(7.5 gal = 1 cu ft)

A. 66.6.

B. 75.

C. 45.

399. H02 AMG

A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 27-1/2 inches in length, 3/4 foot in width, and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many gallons will the tank contain?

(231 cu in = 1 gal)

A. 7.86.

B. 9.80.

C. 8.80.

400. H02 AMG

A four cylinder aircraft engine has a cylinder bore of 3.78 inches and is 8.5 inches deep. With the piston on bottom center, the top of the piston measures 4.0 inches from the bottom of the cylinder. What is the approximate piston displacement of this engine?

A. 235 cubic inches.

B. 200 cubic inches.

C. 360 cubic inches.

401. H02 AMG

A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 37-1/2 inches in length, 14 inches in width, and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many cubic inches are within the tank?

A. 433.125.

B. 4,331.25.

C. 525.

402. H02 AMG

A six cylinder engine with a bore of 3.5 inches, a cylinder height of 7 inches and a stroke of 4.5 inches will have a total piston displacement of

A. 259.77 cubic inches.

B. 43.3 cubic inches.

C. 256.88 cubic inches.

403. H03 AMG

Select the fraction which is equal to .020.

A. 1/5.

B. 1/50.

C. 2/5.

404. H03 AMG

1.21875 is equal to

A. 19/16.

B. 83/64.

C. 39/32.

405. H03 AMG

If the volume of a cylinder with the piston at bottom center is 84 cubic inches and the piston displacement is 70 cubic inches, then the compression ratio is

A. 6 to 1.

B. 7 to 1.

C. 1.2 to 1.

406. H03 AMG

Express 7/8 as a percent.

A. 8.75 percent.

B. 87.5 percent.

C. .875 percent.

407. H03 AMG

What is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420 RPM?

A. 588 RPM.

B. 160 RPM.

C. 140 RPM.

408. H03 AMG

An engine develops 108 horsepower at 87 percent power. What horsepower would be developed at 65 percent power?

A. 64.

B. 70.

C. 80.

409. H03 AMG

A certain aircraft bolt has an overall length of 1-1/2 inches, with a shank length of 1-3/16 inches, and a threaded portion length of 5/8 inch. What is the grip length?

A. .8750 inch.

B. .5625 inch.

C. .3125 inch.

410. H03 AMG

Select the fractional equivalent for a 0.0625 inch thick sheet of aluminum.

A. 3/64.

B. 1/16.

C. 1/32.

411. H03 AMG

Express 5/8 as a percent.

A. 6.25 percent.

B. 62.5 percent.

C. .625 percent.

412. H03 AMG

Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to 77/64.

A. 0.08311.

B. 1.2031.

C. 0.8311.

413. H03 AMG

An airplane flying a distance of 875 miles used 70 gallons of gasoline. How many gallons will it need to travel 3,000 miles?

A. 240.

B. 144.

C. 250.

414. H03 AMG

What is the speed ratio of a gear with 36 teeth meshed to a gear with 20 teeth?

A. 5 to 9.

B. 6.6 to 12.

C. 5 to 12.

415. H03 AMG

A pinion gear with 14 teeth is driving a spur gear with 42 teeth at 140 RPM. Determine the speed of the pinion gear.

A. 588 RPM.

B. 420 RPM.

C. 240 RPM.

416. H03 AMG

The parts department's profit is 12 percent on a new part. How much does the part cost if the selling price is $145.60?

A. $128.12.

B. $125.60.

C. $130.

417. H03 AMG

If an engine is turning 1,965 rpm at 65 percent power, what is its maximum rpm?

A. 2,653.

B. 3,242.

C. 3,023.

418. H03 AMG

An engine of 98 horsepower maximum is running at 75 percent power. What is the horsepower being developed?

A. 87.00.

B. 73.50.

C. 33.30.

419. H03 AMG

A blueprint shows a hole of 0.17187 to be drilled. Which fraction size drill bit is most nearly equal?

A. 11/64.

B. 9/32.

C. 11/32.

420. H03 AMG

Which decimal is most nearly equal to a bend radius of 31/64?

A. 0.4844.

B. 0.2065.

C. 0.3164.

421. H03 AMG

Sixty five engines are what percent of 80 engines?

A. 52 percent.

B. 81 percent.

C. 65 percent.

422. H03 AMG

The radius of a piece of round stock is 7/32. Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to the diameter.

A. 0.2187.

B. 0.4375.

C. 0.3531.

423. H03 AMG

Maximum engine life is 900 hours. Recently, 27 engines were removed with an average life of 635.3 hours. What percent of the maximum engine life has been achieved?

A. 72 percent.

B. 71 percent.

C. 73 percent.

424. H03 AMG

What is the ratio of 10 feet to 30 inches?

A. 3:1.

B. 4:1.

C. 1:3.

425. H03 AMG

How much current does a 30-volt motor, 1/2-horsepower, 85-percent efficient, draw from the bus?

(Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts)

A. 12.4 amperes.

B. 14.1 amperes.

C. 14.6 amperes.

426. H04 AMG

Solve the equation

[(4 x -3) + (-9 x 2)] [divided by] 2 =

A. -15.

B. -30.

C. -5.

427. H04 AMG

Solve the equation.

(64 x 3/8) [divided by] 3/4 =

A. 18.

B. 32.

C. 24.

428. H04 AMG

Solve the equation.

(32 x 3/8) [divided by] ( 1/6 =

A. 12.

B. 72.

C. 2.

429. H04 AMG

What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200 gallons to one of 1,680 pounds?

A. 2:3.

B. 5:7.

C. 5:42.

430. H04 AMG

Solve the equation.

2/4 (30 + 34) 5 =

A. 100.

B. 245.

C. 160.

431. H04 AMG

(Refer to figure 58.) Solve the equation.

A. -81.49.

B. 174.85.

C. 14.00.

432. H04 AMG

(Refer to figure 59.) Solve the equation.

A. -31.25.

B. -5.20.

C. +31.25.

433. H04 AMG

Solve the equation.

4 - 3[-6(2+3) + 4] =

A. -71.

B. -25.

C. 82.

434. H04 AMG

Solve the equation.

-6[-9(-8+4) - 2(7 + 3)] =

A. -96.

B. 216.

C. -332.

435. H04 AMG

Solve the equation.

(-3 + 2)( -12 - 4) + (-4 + 6) x 2

A. 28.

B. 20.

C. 35.

436. H04 AMG

(Refer to figure 60.) Solve the equation.

A. 11.09.

B. 11.7.

C. 11.9.

437. I01 AMG

Where is the record of compliance with Airworthiness Directives or manufacturers' service bulletins normally indicated?

A. Flight manual.

B. Aircraft maintenance records.

C. FAA Form 337.

438. I01 AMG

If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance or alterations performed constitutes

A. approval for return to service only for the work performed.

B. approval of the aircraft for return to service.

C. only verification that the maintenance or alterations were performed referencing maintenance data.

439. I01 AMG

During an annual inspection, if a defect is found which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person disapproving must

A. void the aircraft's Airworthiness Certificate.

B. submit a Malfunction or Defect Report.

C. provide a written notice of the defect to the owner.

440. I01 AMG

What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be operated?

A. Aviation Maintenance Alerts.

B. Airworthiness Directives.

C. Aviation Safety Data.

441. I01 AMG

Which is an appliance major repair?

A. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump.

B. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control.

C. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light circuits.

442. I01 AMG

Where should you find this entry?

''Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches from tip in accordance with figure 8 in the manufacturer's structural repair manual No. 28-1.''

A. Aircraft engine maintenance record.

B. FAA Form 337.

C. Aircraft minor repair and alteration record.

443. I01 AMG

Which maintenance action is an airframe major repair?

A. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory.

B. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

C. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and vibration characteristics.

444. I01 AMG

Which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several damaged heli coils in a casting?

A. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted, the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts installed, and tangs removed.

B. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coil inserts were repaired by replacing the damaged inserts with a lock type insert, after the tapped holes were checked for corrosion.

C. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were installed in place of damaged ones.

445. I01 AMG

Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a control cable showing approximately 20 percent wear on several of the individual outer wires at a fairlead?

A. Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from fairlead.

B. Removed and replaced the control cable and rerigged the system.

C. Wear within acceptable limits, repair not necessary.

446. I01 AMG

Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a .125-inch deep dent in a straight section of 1/2-inch aluminum alloy tubing?

A. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 37°.

B. Dent within acceptable limits, repair not necessary.

C. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 45°.

447. I01 AMG

Which aircraft record entry best describes a repair of a dent in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster?

A. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal and dressed to the original contour.

B. Removed and replaced the damaged member.

C. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area.

448. I02 AMG

Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100-hour, or progressive inspection?

A. The owner or operator of the aircraft.

B. The person approving or disapproving for return to service.

C. The designee or inspector representing the FAA Administrator.

449. I02 AMG

An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning who may correct the discrepancies?

1. Only a mechanic with an inspection authorization.

2. An appropriately rated mechanic.

3. Any certificated repair station.

A. 2 & 3.

B. 2 .

C. 1.

450. I02 AMG

When approving for return to service after maintenance or alteration, the approving person must enter in the maintenance record of the aircraft

A. a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, and certificate number.

B. a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held.

C. the date the maintenance or alteration was begun, a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, and certificate number.

451. I02 AMG

What is/are the appropriate action(s) concerning minor repairs performed on a certificated aircraft?

1. FAA Form 337's must be completed.

2. Entries must be made in the aircraft's maintenance record.

3. The owner of the aircraft must submit a record of all minor repairs to the FAA at least annually.

A. 2 and 3.

B. 2.

C. 1 and 2.

452. I02 AMG

After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine that is to be returned to service, an FAA Form 337 is prepared. How many copies are required and what is the disposition of the completed forms?

A. Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA.

B. Two; one copy for the FAA and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual.

C. Three; one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the FAA, and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual.

453. I02 AMG

Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an aircraft?

A. The maintaining certificated mechanic.

B. The maintaining repair station or authorized inspector.

C. The aircraft owner.

454. I02 AMG

An aircraft was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to fly the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which statement is correct?

A. The aircraft may be flown without restriction up to 10 hours to reach another maintenance base.

B. The owner must obtain a special flight permit.

C. The aircraft becomes a restricted category type until it is approved for return to service.

455. I02 AMG

Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in the appendix of

A. 14 CFR Part 43.

B. 14 CFR Part 65.

C. AC 43.13-3.

456. I02 AMG

An FAA Form 337 is used to record and document

A. preventive and routine maintenance.

B. major and minor repairs, and major and minor alterations.

C. major repairs and major alterations.

457. I02 AMG

After a mechanic holding an airframe and powerplant rating completes a 100-hour inspection, what action is required before the aircraft is returned to service?

A. A mechanic with an inspection authorization must approve the inspection.

B. An operational check of all systems.

C. Make the proper entries in the aircraft's maintenance record.

458. I02 AMG

Which of the following may a certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic perform on aircraft and approve for return to service?

1. a 100-hour inspection.

2. an annual inspection, under specified circumstances.

3. a progressive inspection, under specified circumstances.

A. 1, 3.

B. 1, 2, 3.

C. 1, 2.

459. J01 AMG

The force that can be produced by an actuating cylinder whose piston has a cross sectional area of 3 square inches operating in a 1,000-PSI hydraulic system is most nearly

A. 1,000 pounds.

B. 1,500 pounds.

C. 3,000 pounds.

460. J01 AMG

The boiling point of a given liquid varies

A. directly with volume.

B. inversely with pressure.

C. directly with pressure.

461. J01 AMG

Which of the following is NOT considered a method of heat transfer?

A. Convection.

B. Diffusion.

C. Conduction.

462. J01 AMG

An engine that weighs 350 pounds is removed from an aircraft by means of a mobile hoist. The engine is raised 3 feet above its attachment mount, and the entire assembly is then moved forward 12 feet. A constant force of 70 pounds is required to move the loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to move the hoist?

A. 1,890 foot pounds.

B. 840 foot pounds.

C. 1,050 foot pounds.

463. J01 AMG

Which condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water?

A. Dewpoint.

B. Absolute humidity.

C. Relative humidity.

464. J01 AMG

Under which conditions will the rate of flow of a liquid through a metering orifice (or jet) be the greatest (all other factors being equal)?

A. Unmetered pressure, 18 PSI, [new line]metered pressure, 17.5 PSI, [new line]atmospheric pressure, 14.5 PSI.

B. Unmetered pressure, 23 PSI, [new line]metered pressure, 12 PSI, [new line]atmospheric pressure, 14.3 PSI.

C. Unmetered pressure, 17 PSI, [new line]metered pressure, 5 PSI, [new line]atmospheric pressure, 14.7 PSI.

465. J01 AMG

(Refer to figure 61.) The amount of force applied to rope A to lift the weight is

A. 12 pounds.

B. 15 pounds.

C. 20 pounds.

466. J01 AMG

Which will weigh the least?

A. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapor.

B. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor.

C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.

467. J01 AMG

Which is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure?

A. Dewpoint.

B. Relative humidity.

C. Absolute humidity.

468. J01 AMG

The speed of sound in the atmosphere

A. varies according to the frequency of the sound.

B. changes with a change in pressure.

C. changes with a change in temperature.

469. J01 AMG

If the volume of a confined gas is doubled (without the addition of more gas), the pressure will (assume the temperature remains constant)

A. increase in direct proportion to the volume increase.

B. remain the same.

C. be reduced to one half its original value.

470. J01 AMG

If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is tripled, the volume will

A. remain the same.

B. be reduced to one third its original volume.

C. triple.

471. J01 AMG

How much work input is required to lower (not drop) a 120-pound weight from the top of a 3-foot table to the floor?

A. 360 foot-pounds.

B. 120 pounds of force.

C. 40 foot-pounds.

472. J01 AMG

Which atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing speed of an aircraft to be the greatest?

A. High temperature with low humidity.

B. High temperature with high humidity.

C. Low temperature with low humidity.

473. J01 AMG

If the fluid pressure is 800 PSI in a 1/2-inch line supplying an actuating cylinder with a piston area of 10 square inches, the force exerted on the piston will be

A. 4,000 pounds.

B. 800 pounds.

C. 8,000 pounds.

474. J01 AMG

How many, if any, factors are necessary to determine power?

1. Force exerted.

2. Distance the force moves.

3. Time required to do the work.

A. One.

B. Two.

C. Three.

475. J01 AMG

What force must be applied to roll a 120-pound barrel up an inclined plane 9 feet long to a height of 3 feet (disregard friction)?

L 'divided by' I = R 'divided by' E

L = Length of ramp, measured along the slope.

I = Height of ramp.

R = Weight of object to be raised or lowered.

E = Force required to raise or lower object.

A. 120 pounds.

B. 360 pounds.

C. 40 pounds.

476. J01 AMG

Which statement concerning heat and/or temperature is true?

A. Temperature is a measure of the potential energy of the molecules of any substance.

B. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any substance.

C. There is an inverse relationship between temperature and heat.

477. J01 AMG

What is absolute humidity?

A. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated.

B. The ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure.

C. The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture of air and water.

478. J01 AMG

The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated is called

A. dewpoint.

B. absolute humidity.

C. relative humidity.

479. J01 AMG

If both the volume and the absolute temperature of a confined gas are doubled, the pressure will

A. be halved.

B. become four times as great.

C. not change.

480. J01 AMG

If all, or a significant part of a stall strip is missing on an airplane wing, a likely result will be

A. decreased lift in the area of installation at high angles of attack.

B. asymmetrical lateral control at low angles of attack.

C. asymmetrical lateral control at or near stall angles of attack.

481. J01 AMG

An airplane wing is designed to produce lift resulting from

A. positive air pressure below and above the wing's surface along with the downward deflection of air.

B. negative air pressure below the wing's surface and positive air pressure above the wing's surface along with the downward deflection of air.

C. positive air pressure below the wing's surface and negative air pressure above the wing's surface along with the downward deflection of air.

482. J01 AMG

The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral is to

A. increase longitudinal stability.

B. increase lift coefficient of the wing.

C. increase lateral stability.

483. J01 AMG

Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the

A. square of the chord to the wingspan.

B. wingspan to the wing root.

C. wingspan to the mean chord.

484. J01 AMG

A wing with a very high aspect ratio (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) will have

A. increased drag at high angles of attack.

B. a low stall speed.

C. poor control qualities at low airspeeds.

485. J01 AMG

The desired effect of using winglets on an aircraft's wingtips is to

A. increase the lift to drag ratio.

B. optimize wing dihedral and improve lateral stability

C. reduce the aspect ratio.

486. K01 AMG

Airworthiness Directives are issued primarily to

A. correct an unsafe condition.

B. present recommended maintenance procedures for correcting potentially hazardous defects.

C. provide information about malfunction or defect trends.

487. K01 AMG

(1) A Supplemental Type Certificate may be issued to more than one applicant for the same design change, providing each applicant shows compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirement.

(2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft.

Regarding the above statements,

A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

B. only No. 1 is true.

C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

488. K01 AMG

Primary responsibility for compliance with Airworthiness Directives lies with the

A. certificated mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization who conducts appropriate inspections.

B. certificated mechanic who maintains the aircraft.

C. aircraft owner or operator.

489. K01 AMG

An aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet contains

A. control surface adjustment points.

B. location of the datum.

C. maximum fuel grade to be used.

490. K01 AMG

Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a particular engine airplane combination can be determined by reference to what informational source?

A. Aircraft Specifications or Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet.

B. Alphabetical Index of Current Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets, Specifications, and Listings.

C. Propeller Specifications or Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheet.

491. K01 AMG

When an airworthy (at the time of sale) aircraft is sold, the Airworthiness Certificate

A. is voided and a new certificate is issued upon application by the new owner.

B. is transferred with the aircraft.

C. becomes invalid until the aircraft is reinspected and approved for return to service.

492. K01 AMG

The issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by

A. 14 CFR Part 39.

B. 14 CFR Part 23.

C. 14 CFR Part 21.

493. K01 AMG

Specifications pertaining to an aircraft, of which a limited number were manufactured under a type certificate and for which there is no current Aircraft Specification, can be found in the

A. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Aircraft Specifications.

B. Summary of Discontinued Aircraft Specifications.

C. Aircraft Listing.

494. K01 AMG

Where are technical descriptions of certificated propellers found?

A. Aircraft Specifications.

B. Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets.

C. Applicable Airworthiness Directives.

495. K01 AMG

What information is generally contained in Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets?

A. Control surface movements.

B. Useful load of aircraft.

C. Empty weight of the aircraft.

496. K01 AMG

Placards required on an aircraft are specified in

A. AC 43.13-1B.

B. the Federal Aviation Regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated.

C. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.

497. K01 AMG

Technical information about older aircraft models, of which no more than 50 remain in service, can be found in the

A. Aircraft Listing.

B. Index of Antique Aircraft.

C. Summary of Deleted and Discontinued Aircraft Specifications.

498. K01 AMG

(1) The Federal Aviation Regulations require approval after compliance with the data of a Supplemental Type Certificate.

(2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft.

A. only No. 2 is true.

B. only No. 1 is true.

C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

499. K01 AMG

Which regulation provides information regarding instrument range markings for an airplane certificated in the normal category?

A. 14 CFR Part 21.

B. 14 CFR Part 23.

C. 14 CFR Part 25.

500. K01 AMG

(1) Propellers are NOT included in the Airworthiness Directive system.

(2) A certificated powerplant mechanic may make a minor repair on an aluminum propeller and approve for return to service.

Regarding the above statements,

A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

C. only No. 2 is true.

501. K01 AMG

An aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform major alterations on U.S. certificated aircraft; however, the work must be done in accordance with FAA approved technical data before the aircraft can be returned to service. Which is NOT approved data?

A. Airworthiness Directives.

B. Supplemental Type Certificates.

C. AC 43.13-2A.

502. K01 AMG

What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who complies with an Airworthiness Directive?

A. Advise the FAA district office of the work performed, by submitting an FAA Form 337.

B. Make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment.

C. Advise the aircraft owner/operator of the work performed.

503. K01 AMG

(1) Manufacturer's data and FAA publications such as Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and advisory circulars are all approved data.

(2) FAA publications such as Technical Standard Orders, Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and Aircraft Specifications and Supplemental Type Certificates are all approved data.

A. only No. 2 is true.

B. only No. 1 is true.

C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

504. K01 AMG

The Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Specification No. 100

(1) establishes a standard for the presentation of technical data in maintenance manuals.

(2) divides the aircraft into numbered systems and subsystems in order to simplify locating maintenance instructions.

Regarding the above statements,

A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

B. only No. 1 is true.

C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

505. K01 AMG

General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts

A. provide information about aircraft problems and suggested corrective actions.

B. provide mandatory procedures to prevent or correct serious aircraft problems.

C. provide temporary emergency procedures until Airworthiness Directives can be issued.

506. K01 AMG

(Refer to figure 62,62A, & 62B as necessary.) Which doubler(s) require(s) heat treatment before installation?

A. -102.

B. Both.

C. -101.

507. K01 AMG

(Refer to figure 62, 62A & 62B, as necessary.) Using only the information given (when bend allowance, set back, etc. have been calculated) which doubler is it possible to construct and install?

A. Both.

B. -101.

C. -102.

508. K01 AMG

(Refer to figure 62.) The -100 in the title block (Area 1) is applicable to which doubler part number(s)?

A. -101.

B. -102.

C. Both.

509. K02 AMG

(Refer to figure 63.) An aircraft has a total time in service of 468 hours. The Airworthiness Directive given was initially complied with at 454 hours in service. How many additional hours in service may be accumulated before the Airworthiness Directive must again be complied with?

A. 46.

B. 200.

C. 186.

510. K02 AMG

The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA issued aircraft specification:

Normal operating speed 260 knots

Never exceed speed 293 knots

Maximum landing gear operation speed 174 knots

Maximum flap extended speed 139 knots

The high end of the white arc on the airspeed instrument would be at

A. 293 knots.

B. 260 knots.

C. 139 knots.

511. K02 AMG

A complete detailed inspection and adjustment of the valve mechanism will be made at the first 25 hours after the engine has been placed in service. Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanism will be made each second 50-hour period.

From the above statement, at what intervals will valve mechanism inspections be performed?

A. 50 hours.

B. 100 hours.

C. 125 hours.

512. K02 AMG

Check thrust bearing nuts for tightness on new or newly overhauled engines at the first 50-hour inspection following installation. Subsequent inspections on thrust bearing nuts will be made at each third 50-hour inspection.

From the above statement, at what intervals should you check the thrust bearing nut for tightness?

A. 150 hours.

B. 200 hours.

C. 250 hours.

513. L01 AMG

Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may perform

A. 100-hour inspections required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant, propeller, or any component thereof, and may release the same to service.

B. any inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or propeller or any component thereof, and may release the same to service.

C. 100-hour and/or annual inspections required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on powerplants, propellers, or any components thereof, and may release the same to service.

514. L01 AMG

A repair, as performed on an airframe, shall mean

A. the upkeep and preservation of the airframe including the component parts thereof.

B. the restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after damage or deterioration.

C. simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.

515. L01 AMG

The replacement of fabric on fabric covered parts such as wings, fuselages, stabilizers, or control surfaces is considered to be a

A. minor repair unless the underlying structure is altered or repaired.

B. minor repair unless the new cover is different in any way from the original cover.

C. major repair even though no other alteration or repair is performed.

516. L01 AMG

Which is classified as a major repair?

A. Any repair of damaged stressed metal skin.

B. Installation of new engine mounts obtained from the aircraft manufacturer.

C. The splicing of skin sheets.

517. L01 AMG

The 100-hour inspection required by Federal Aviation Regulations for certain aircraft being operated for hire may be performed by

A. appropriately rated mechanics only if they have an inspection authorization.

B. persons working under the supervision of an appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft must be approved by the mechanic for return to service.

C. appropriately rated mechanics and approved by them for return to service.

518. L01 AMG

A person working under the supervision of a certificated mechanic with an airframe and powerplant rating is not authorized to perform

A. a 100-hour inspection.

B. repair of an engine mount by riveting.

C. repair of a wing brace strut by welding.

519. L01 AMG

Certificated mechanics, under their general certificate privileges, may

A. perform minor repairs to instruments.

B. perform 100-hour inspection of instruments.

C. perform minor alterations to instruments.

520. L01 AMG

An Airworthiness Directive requires that a propeller be altered. Certificated mechanics could

A. not perform the work because they are not allowed to perform and approve for return to service, repairs or alterations to propellers.

B. perform and approve the work for return to service if it is a minor alteration.

C. not perform the work because it is an alteration.

521. L01 AMG

The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a

A. minor repair.

B. major repair.

C. minor alteration.

522. L01 AMG

FAA certificated mechanics may

A. approve for return to service a minor alteration they have performed appropriate to the rating(s) they hold.

B. supervise and approve a 100-hour inspection.

C. approve for return to service a major repair for which they are rated.

523. L01 AMG

A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may perform the

A. annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to service.

B. 100-hour inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on an airframe, powerplant, or any other component thereof and approve and return the same to service.

C. 100-hour inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to service.

524. L01 AMG

What part of the Federal Aviation Regulations prescribes the requirements for issuing mechanic certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for the holders of these certificates and ratings?

A. 14 CFR Part 91.

B. 14 CFR Part 43.

C. 14 CFR Part 65.

525. L01 AMG

A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of the certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24 months, the Administrator has found that the certificate holder is able to do the work or the certificate holder has

A. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 18 months.

B. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 6 months.

C. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 12 months.

526. L01 AMG

(1) Certificated mechanics with an airframe rating may perform a minor repair to an airspeed indicator providing they have the necessary equipment available.

(2) Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may perform a major repair to a propeller providing they have the necessary equipment available.

Regarding the above statements,

A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

B. only No. 1 is true.

C. only No. 2 is true.

527. L01 AMG

Who is responsible for determining that materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are of the proper type and conform to the appropriate standards?

A. The owner of the aircraft.

B. The manufacturer of the aircraft.

C. The installing person or agency.

528. L01 AMG

Which of these publications contains standards for protrusion of bolts, studs, and screws through self-locking nuts?

A. AC 43.13-1B.

B. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.

C. AC 43.13-2.

529. L01 AMG

The replacement of a damaged engine mount with a new identical engine mount purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a

A. major repair.

B. major or minor repair, depending upon the complexity of the installation.

C. minor repair.

530. L01 AMG

Who has the authority to approve for return to service a propeller after a 100-hour inspection?

1. A mechanic with a powerplant rating.

2. Any certificated repairman.

3. A non-certificated mechanic working under the supervision of a certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings.

A. 1 and 3.

B. 1.

C. 2.

531. L01 AMG

Instrument repairs may be performed

A. by an FAA-approved instrument repair station.

B. by the instrument manufacturer only.

C. on airframe instruments by mechanics with an airframe rating.

Questions 1 - 260